absorbtion?

21gone

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Recently there has been some light shed here on the forum that has been new to me that perhaps grapefruit juice helps in the absorbtion of pills. Well seeing how i am not a big fan of grapefruit juice, I was wondering if anyone knew if orange juice would do the same thing?
 

bombscience

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Grapefruit juice prevents enzymes in the walls of the liver and small intestine from metabolizing drugs, thus resulting in a higher concentration of the drug in the bloodstream.

Read this first:
http://www.healingpeople.com/hair transplant/index.p ... Itemid=145

And if you really need to be technical:
GJ = Grapefruit Juice

Time course of GJ-drug Interactions

A research group conducted a study with simvastatin to characterize the duration of the GJ induced CYP 3A4 inhibition. Ten healthy volunteers (9 male, 1 female) received simvastatin 40 mg with either water as a control, and either 0, 1, 3 or 7 days after drinking high-dose GJ (200 mL double-strength GJ) three times daily for 3 days in a non-randomized crossover fashion. As seen with the previous study, significant increases in simvastatin levels after GJ intake were observed on the day 0 study when compared with water. Simvastatin AUC was increased 1250%, with Cmax increased 1104%. Time to peak concentration (Tmax) was also prolonged from 2 hours to 4 hours (100% increase). This effect was significantly reduced if 24 hours elapsed between the last GJ intake and simvastatin dosing. At this time, simvastatin AUC was increased 105%, and Cmax was increased 136%. The authors noted that the effect of even high-dose GJ 24 hours after ingestion is only about 10% of that seen with concurrent GJ and simvastatin intake. AUC and Cmax of simvastatin when taken on day 3 and day 7 after last GJ intake were not significantly elevated compared to control, indicating that the interaction potential of even high amounts of GJ intake dissipates within 3-7 days after last GJ ingestion.

This is useful for characterizing the time course of GJ-drug interactions, and fits with prior expectations that the GJ effect can last up to 3 days after last GJ ingestion.90
 

Cassin

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But it really wouldn't matter for people try this for max benefits since finasteride isn't dose dependant.

This is really a non-issue. If I want to up the amount of finasteride in my body I can go from .25 mg and up it to 10mg and it won' matter very much at all.

This is helpfull though for people who want to minimize sides if you happen to eat this most fowl fruit.
 

mvpsoft

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cassin said:
But it really wouldn't matter since finasteride isn't dose dependant.
I'm seen this claim before, and I don't understand it. Correct me if I'm wrong, but don't the studies show that the higher the dosage of finasteride, the more effective it tends to be? IOW, taking 1 mg daily is likely to be more effective than, say, taking .25 mg daily? If so, that is exactly what dose dependent means.
 

Cassin

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Damn got nailed on a quote right when I edit it.......

It matters very slighly. finasteride is "RELATIVELY" NON-Dose dependant.

Ok I am uncertain on the exact doses here but I think they tried out some people on MG's as high as 430 MG and their results were almost the same as those at 1MG. There is even a slight difference between .20 mg and 1 MG. I think somehwere around 66% of the people were successful at .20 and 86% at 1MG. Anything after 1MG is a slight and creeping increase in success %.
 

HairlossTalk

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Yes. You do run the risk of decreased effectiveness whe you dip below 1mg, but the % improvement by going above 1mg is negligible.

HairLossTalk.com
 

mvpsoft

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Ok, so it is somewhat dose dependent, but only to a point. Thanks for clarifying that for me.
 
G

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cassin said:
mvpsoft said:
Ok, so it is somewhat dose dependent, but only to a point. Thanks for clarifying that for me.

Not somewhat. Not even close. Almost to the point of completely "NON."


NO NO NO!, someone dig out the hair count figures, finasteride is dose dependent, simple as that. A drug can't be almost or nearly dose dependent, it either is or isn't and in the case of finasteride it is dose dependent.

The relationship between dose and results may be non-linear, but this does not negate the fact that the more finasteride you ingest the more DHT you inhibit.

If this were not so, why would there be a recommendation for BPH patients to take 5mg, if the 1mg that male pattern baldness patients use would yield identical results?
 

Cassin

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tynanW said:
If this were not so, why would there be a recommendation for BPH patients to take 5mg, if the 1mg that male pattern baldness patients use would yield identical results?

Ok well now were talking two different things. BPH and DHT.

My statement involves the specific relation to hairloss and finasteride.
 
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