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My maternal grandfather was recently perscribed Proscar for BPH. Of course I know that there’s no definitive way of finding out whether or not I have a likelihood of getting side effects, and I know that my paternal side has yet to be accounted for in that aspect. But if he tolerates it well, does this by any means suggest that I will have a lower chance if getting sides? And if so, is there any literature that supports such findings?