I know after 2 years on minoxidil uve basically reached the max growth and are just maintaining. I was wondering if im using minoxidil on one area right now, and 3 years later i decide to use minoxidil on another area, will i have 2 years of growth on that new area? The reason i ask is cause i heard that once minoxidil is applied and absorb into the scalp it enters the blood stream and travels to other areas as well and not just in the area u applied it (thats why some women get facial hair). So doesnt that mean if im used it , for example on the right temple, for 2 years and ive acheived my max growth and am just maintaining, and then decide to apply it to the left temple as well, will i see growth in the left temple for 2 years or will minoxidil not have any effectivness (except maintenance of wut is already there) because the 2 years of growth are up (since ive been using it for 2 years already, even though i was not applying it to that specific area). I know this isnt that clear, but hopefully u can understand it. Thanks
NOT So Stupid Question---***HairLossTalk.com*** HELP PLZ
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The shedder
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Thats a damn good question, its always boggled me.
TortoiseAndHair
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disclaimer: I don't know what I'm talking about.
Look at it this way. There are two possibilites:
1) The Minoxidil enters the bloodstream and grows hair elsewhere.
2) The Minoxidil doesn't enter the bloodstream, or at least, it only affects the area applied.
So, if 1) is true, then regardless of where you're applying it on your scalp, you should see more-or-less uniform regrowth.
If 2) is true, then X years down the road, when you decide to apply Minoxidil all over your scalp, the area that was minoxidil-free before (not growing hairs) should start growing hair.
I find it hard to believe that you could have a scenario where you don't have any growth, yet still somehow used up your "two years of growth."
Look at it this way. There are two possibilites:
1) The Minoxidil enters the bloodstream and grows hair elsewhere.
2) The Minoxidil doesn't enter the bloodstream, or at least, it only affects the area applied.
So, if 1) is true, then regardless of where you're applying it on your scalp, you should see more-or-less uniform regrowth.
If 2) is true, then X years down the road, when you decide to apply Minoxidil all over your scalp, the area that was minoxidil-free before (not growing hairs) should start growing hair.
I find it hard to believe that you could have a scenario where you don't have any growth, yet still somehow used up your "two years of growth."
Yah this question is really bothering me. Does anybody have a certain answer?? Should I just start applying minoxidil too all the areas that need it now, instead of only one area. The reason im doing this is because im hoping propecia can restore the other areas.
HairlossTalk
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I wouldn't call this a stupid question but its definitely a question that you should know is not possible to answer. That's similar to asking us if you treat one hair with rogaine and a hair next to it with Revivogen, will one grow 3 inches and the other grow 6 inches?under20 said:
You're really overanalyzing. Look at it this way: Keep using Rogaine in the area you've been using it. If you start to notice thinning in another area, begin using it there as well. Then just live life, take pictures, and evaluate your progress only in intervals of every 6 months.
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