propecia after 5 years - logical thinking

[chewbaca]

is it logical to jump to conclusion after 5 years that propecia doesnt work. and that people are losing their hair..if they did then maybe...its probably cos of 2 things..age related shedding - everyone male pattern baldness or not will go thru this...or...maybe the body increased the androgen receptors/incresed sensitivity ect..the 2nd theory is the fact that at you r current age it reflects the situation if u were not on finasteride....its just that there's a "filter" there...the filter is finasteride...can u see the picture here....its like a filter in a fish tank...as the filter gets older it somehow becomes less effective in filtering dirt particles in the water somewhat losing some of its effectiveness, may not mean it will completely lose its effectiveness...But rightnow i guess my theory is that no one can predict the future....no studies have been done so far on finasteride after 5 years...And give food for this thought....If finasteride inhibits DHT, than it stops hairloss....But how would it just stop working all of a sudden...there must be a scientific theory to prove the fact...Just increased sensiticvity to androgen recptors is not enough..there must be DHT...and also another fact that as one ages, the hairloss could be due to other things like less estrogen ect...there are many possibilities....Well if its in fact true that finasteride stops working after 5 years..then those originally treated for BPH will go back to SQUARE 1..meaning the invention of this drug is virtually useless for BPH just be delaying the sickness and eventually u will get it...

 

[Pirate Commander F.B.]

Well what you wrote is completely unreadable, so I will just give my opinion on this subject.

It is my opinion that the old saying of "finasteride stops working after 5 years" is based on incorrect, superficial interpretation of the propecia 5-year study. In that study the propecia user group increases it's average haircount in the first year, then after the first year the average haircount declines but is still over baseline haircounts after 5 years.

Remember that these number are average haircounts for a group of people and say nothing about individual response to the treatment. So why does the average haircount increase in the first year and then decline after that? To know this you must first think about which factors make the average haircount decrease or increase.

- People who regrow hair have a positive influence on av. haircount.
- People who do not regrow hair nor lose hair have no influence on av. haircount.
- People who lose hair have a negative influence on av. haircount

Therefore:

If regrowth in the group is greater than hairloss, average haircount goes up.
If hairloss in the group is greater than regrowth, average haircount goes down.

Basically, unless a treatment at least stops hairloss in 100% of users there will always be a point when average haircounts decrease (after the average hairloss becomes greater than the average regrowth). It's simple maths. That the average haircounts decrease after the first year is simply because propecia does not stop hairloss in all users. It has nothing to do with tolerance issues.

 

[chewbaca]

Thanks for tha tinfo Pirate Commander F.B...it has been very uselful....well was the chart was taken on the group of users who were on propecia whether it was working or not for them?

This might be of interesting read about the matter:



Finasteride has a biological model and dutasteride does not. This quite simply means that there is much more safety data on Propecia than Avodart right now. The effects of 5AR type 2 deficiency, (the same environment Propecia creates) have been thoroughly studied for over 25 years in a group of patients in the Dominican Republic. The long-term "side effects" are no hair loss, and no prostate cancer. Patients with genetic 5AR-2 deficiency have no life-threatening disorders and there is no 5AR-2 present in their brain tissue. Conversely, there is no biological model for 5AR type 1 deficiency, which Avodart creates, and there are measurable levels of 5AR-1 in the human brain. Conclusion -- the blockage of 5AR-1 may have yet unknown neurological implications.http://www.hairlosstalk.com/newslet...e=article&sid=201&mode=thread&order=0&thold=0

25 years....those dominican people had a type 2 defienciency..the same for propecia users....any idea what to make out of this?..a

 

[Pirate Commander F.B.]

Thanks for tha tinfo Pirate Commander F.B...it has been very uselful....well was the chart was taken on the group of users who were on propecia whether it was working or not for them?

Yes those are the results for the whole group of finasteride users.

 

[chewbaca]

"..... no 5AR-2 present in their brain tissue...."

THis proves it right...cause those dominican people none of it...they ddint lose their hair....but propecia leaves 30% of DHT....which is why after 5 years this level accumulate and cuase a slight slowdown in hair growth.....

 

[Axon]

Your theory assumes that DHT is the sole cause of hair loss. Were this the case, Avodart would have ended male pattern baldness forever.