propecia's effectiveness

jsmith19

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Hi all
I was wondering if the degree of hairloss you were destined to have before using propecia makes it less effective. For example, if some one has hair still and they start propecia, if they originally were genetically determined to be very bald would propecia be less effective in keeping the hair?

Thanks.
 

SE-freak

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I tend to conclude it is a combination of two things:
- the area of genetically inherited dht sensitive follicles
- and the degree of sensitivity those follicles have

If propecia lowers the levels of dht to such a degree that allows follicles to thrive, then a scalp predestined to eventually go NW29000 will stabilize.

One can have such an increased dht sensitivity over a small area of scalp(i.e. temples, or a specific portion of the vertex) that even the "under finasteride" low levels of dht will cause loss. This man will head to his norwood even on propecia.

This is very simplistic, but I guess you get my drift.
 

Weepy

Established Member
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SE-freak said:
I tend to conclude it is a combination of two things:
- the area of genetically inherited dht sensitive follicles
- and the degree of sensitivity those follicles have

If propecia lowers the levels of dht to such a degree that allows follicles to thrive, then a scalp predestined to eventually go NW29000 will stabilize.

One can have such an increased dht sensitivity over a small area of scalp(i.e. temples, or a specific portion of the vertex) that even the "under finasteride" low levels of dht will cause loss. This man will head to his norwood even on propecia.

This is very simplistic, but I guess you get my drift.

Thumbs up. That really does get at the heart of it. It is the receptor and not DHT per se that is the problem.
 
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