Pubertal Temporal Recession aka Mature Hairline

lelma

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I read some sections in books

https://books.google.co.in/books?id...onepage&q=Pubertal temporal recession&f=false

All such books agree to the fact that there is existence of temporal recession. If so, how can one differentiate between such recession and Male Pattern Baldness?
 

Mr Mayhem

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Look at your relatives. Also if u are young with a "mature hairline" you're most likely ****ed
 

abcdefg

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I think the whole mature hairline term is silly. Your going to call some miniaturization okay because it happens to most guys but then say if more hair miniaturizes than its a condtion known as male pattern baldness even though most men have that too? I mean think about it all miniaturization really stems from the same processes but we call one X and the other Y when they are the same thing.
I think the docs/books are wrong on this one by trying to define exact points to something they dont understand. IMO hair loss is hair loss there is no point distinguishing a little of it from a lot.
 

Mr Mayhem

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I can't see your pics ? Pluck some hairs from mid-scalp and crown , then some from the sides. If u notice the hairs from top and crown significantly thinner , then you are definitely in trouble
 

abcdefg

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If you have any recession IMO you should be thinking male pattern baldness because I dont buy the idea that it magically stops and stays like that for many decades. Is it possible? Sure but its totally unpredictable so its not worth playing that game when current treatments can do little more than prevent.
 

beaner

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If you google pictures of a young Brad Pitt, you can see pretty clearly that his hairline today is not the same as it was 30 years ago, yet pretty much everyone agrees his current hair is perfect and he does not have male pattern baldness

There is such a thing as a mature hairline whether you chose to believe it or not. Almost no one is going to retain their juvenile hairline for life, yet it does not mean that someone is destined for baldness.
 

bilboswaggins

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If you google pictures of a young Brad Pitt, you can see pretty clearly that his hairline today is not the same as it was 30 years ago, yet pretty much everyone agrees his current hair is perfect.

There is such a thing as a mature hairline whether you chose to believe it or not. Almost no one is going to retain their juvenile hairline for life, yet it does not mean that someone is destined for baldness.

mature hairlines do exist but Brad Pitt is not a good example. His hairline seems exactly the same as it was when he was young. The guy is nw1, not a nw2, not a mature hairline.

2014

9scxtu.jpg


much younger

nlva7r.jpg
 

beaner

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mature hairlines do exist but Brad Pitt is not a good example. His hairline seems exactly the same as it was when he was young. The guy is nw1, not a nw2, not a mature hairline.

2014

9scxtu.jpg


much younger

nlva7r.jpg

There are a number of results in the link below, that seem to show him with a more rounded Norwood 0 hairline--probably when he was in his early twenties.

http://www.google.com/search?tbm=is...sedr...0...1ac.1.34.img..1.16.873.2QYLpQzPsg4
 

beaner

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Even Tom Cruise's hairline is different now than it was in Top Gun and he doesn't have male pattern baldness.

- - - Updated - - -

NW0 doesn't exist. Brad Pitt still has the same hair line he had when he was 12.

He does not---not quite. And what would you call a rounded hairline with no temporal recession at all if not a Norwood 0? Technically it may not be on the Norwood chart but it has to be called something, doesn't it? Norwood 0 sounds good enough to me.
 

bilboswaggins

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There are a number of results in the link below, that seem to show him with a more rounded Norwood 0 hairline--probably when he was in his early twenties.

http://www.google.com/search?tbm=is...sedr...0...1ac.1.34.img..1.16.873.2QYLpQzPsg4

the longer hair makes his hairline look more rounded. If his hair was pulled back it would look the same as that first picture of him at 50 yrs old.
 

beaner

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1.jpg

In fact it is. And it's called a NW1. The scale starts at NW1 and it's specified that it means a full head of hair.



Call it what you want. The overhead shot of that Norwood 1 looks like temple recession to me. In the future, you'll need to go and correct everyone that uses the term Norwood 0. It will become a full time job for you.

Seriously, find something better to do with your time than nitpick the usage of Norwood terminology. That chart shows Norwood 1 as the initial stage of androgenic alopecia, so Norwood 0 sounds like a full head of hair to me.
 

hair_nag

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For me the difference between my childhood hairline and post puberty hairline was simply that the temple edge became Sharpe rather than the rounded shape they were before puberty. I was still a NW1 up until later half of 26 though and I think the post puberty Sharpe hairline looked much better than the rounded temples.

I personally don't believe in mature hairline. what people call mature hairline is just people who receded really slowly or the recession stops at a NW2. its still male pattern baldness though, just a non aggressive form. If a guy has no male pattern baldness he would be NW1.
 

abcdefg

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Its just arguing over semantics. Norwood 1 or 0 both represent your hair as it was before any loss occurred regardless of what some bad artist drew up on that chart you cant interpret it literally. If someone always had a big forehead than you cant get back hair you never had there to begin with. Everyone just wants more hair to be closer to that Norwood 0/1 state because that is really the youngest looking version of you. If your happy at higher Norwood than why are you here?
 

hair_nag

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NW0 in the context of most people on these forums normally means an exceptionally good hairline and small forehead.

nah there is no such thing as NW0. what people call a NW0 is just a NW1 with a low hairline. Not everyone has the same hairline, so not all NW1 are the same. NW1 just means that you have no hairloss, and you have your original hairline.
 

abcdefg

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nah there is no such thing as NW0. what people call a NW0 is just a NW1 with a low hairline. Not everyone has the same hairline, so not all NW1 are the same. NW1 just means that you have no hairloss, and you have your original hairline.

Right so who really cares if its Norwood 0 or Norwood 1 its pointless argument. Its like online grammar nazis if you can understand what I am trying to say who cares if I left off the comma?
 

hair_nag

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Going back to the OP mature hairline only exist in that men get sharp temples after puberty or soon after, but if you don't have male pattern baldness your hairline will stay put only the few baby hairs at the temple corner that used to make it rounded will go away. That is essentially what makes male hairlines different from female hairlines, even when the guy has all his hair.
http://3.bp.blogspot.com/-U83bqzCiV...vbGs8UEKB8Q/s1600/Average+male+and+female.JPG
 

JimmyJones

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Going back to the OP mature hairline only exist in that men get sharp temples after puberty or soon after, but if you don't have male pattern baldness your hairline will stay put only the few baby hairs at the temple corner that used to make it rounded will go away. That is essentially what makes male hairlines different from female hairlines, even when the guy has all his hair.
http://3.bp.blogspot.com/-U83bqzCiV...vbGs8UEKB8Q/s1600/Average+male+and+female.JPG

I agree. There IS such things as men with mature hairlines which changed very slightly after puberty and have and will never have male pattern baldness. These men are NW1. There is no such thing as NW0 - it is just a comical term people use on this forum like NW500000 when they are slick bald. These are the facts, why do you baldies find this so hard to understand?

Ps. Tom Cruise is an example with someone who is NW1 but has a mature hairline. Justin Bieber is Norwood 1 with a juvenile hairline.
 
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