Hi, I recently spoke with my dermatologist concerned about recession at the temples and hairline. He advised me that the only reason propecia and rogaine are required to state that their products are not effective for these areas is because research hasn't yet proven them to be. However, research also hasn't proven them not to be. He explained that the majority of studies have simply focused on the vertex / mid anterior region. As they like to say in science, the absence of evidence isn't evidence of absense.
Accordingly, he advised that I try propecia and or rogaine for my bitemporal recession.
Does anyone know if there is any evidence out there showing that propecia and rogaine are not effective for temporal recession? If so, I'd love to see the science. If not, is there any reason that these drugs shouldn't work equally well on all areas of the scalp?
Thanks!
Accordingly, he advised that I try propecia and or rogaine for my bitemporal recession.
Does anyone know if there is any evidence out there showing that propecia and rogaine are not effective for temporal recession? If so, I'd love to see the science. If not, is there any reason that these drugs shouldn't work equally well on all areas of the scalp?
Thanks!