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Greetings,
After initial fascination with hair loss in my late teens, I began to prioritize other factors in life after creating an active protocol that fortunately worked to make my recession unnoticeable. The other day, I noticed significant hair thinning in one of my colleagues, and revisited the online hair loss spaces to see what developments have taken place and what treatments are currently being administered. To my surprise, many of the treatments that are being discussed are specific to testosterone deliberation— not to prevent its interaction with 5α-reductases which ensues dihydrotestosterone, rather prevent testosterone from expressing androgenic venture on the hair follicle itself. Hair loss is not my expertise, but I have been fortunate to study the subject in great detail when it was of interest to me several years ago at my university. After looking through my notes and countless literature publications on this topic, I have found no tangible demonstration of this speculation in literature. In fact, without getting too technical on the androgenic expressional profile of testosterone, it seems strictly impeding the expression of testosterone in the scalp of non-transitional males that are subsequently producing normal ranges of estradiol might harm hair wellbeing, if nothing at all. Nonetheless, testosterone-induced alopecia seems to have become well understood in the hair loss niche.
Is there something I am missing? Please pardon if this foolish as it has been years since I have delved into androgenic alopecia, but why is it accepted that the testosterone should be mitigated using an inepter of the androgen in addition to a 5α-Reductase inhibitor?
I would be very interested in reading more of dihydrotestosterone-independent hair loss progression; if anyone could guide me to any literature or data supporting this understanding, I would be very grateful. If the study is blocked or subscription-based, please send anyway as I likely have access. Thanks!
After initial fascination with hair loss in my late teens, I began to prioritize other factors in life after creating an active protocol that fortunately worked to make my recession unnoticeable. The other day, I noticed significant hair thinning in one of my colleagues, and revisited the online hair loss spaces to see what developments have taken place and what treatments are currently being administered. To my surprise, many of the treatments that are being discussed are specific to testosterone deliberation— not to prevent its interaction with 5α-reductases which ensues dihydrotestosterone, rather prevent testosterone from expressing androgenic venture on the hair follicle itself. Hair loss is not my expertise, but I have been fortunate to study the subject in great detail when it was of interest to me several years ago at my university. After looking through my notes and countless literature publications on this topic, I have found no tangible demonstration of this speculation in literature. In fact, without getting too technical on the androgenic expressional profile of testosterone, it seems strictly impeding the expression of testosterone in the scalp of non-transitional males that are subsequently producing normal ranges of estradiol might harm hair wellbeing, if nothing at all. Nonetheless, testosterone-induced alopecia seems to have become well understood in the hair loss niche.
Is there something I am missing? Please pardon if this foolish as it has been years since I have delved into androgenic alopecia, but why is it accepted that the testosterone should be mitigated using an inepter of the androgen in addition to a 5α-Reductase inhibitor?
I would be very interested in reading more of dihydrotestosterone-independent hair loss progression; if anyone could guide me to any literature or data supporting this understanding, I would be very grateful. If the study is blocked or subscription-based, please send anyway as I likely have access. Thanks!
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