dontwannagobald
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I am trying to get a grip on the intricacies of topical Finasteride usage. To my understanding Finsteride doesn't block or annihilate existing DHT, but rather inhibits the conversion of Testosterone into DHT. So once DHT is already converted and present, Finasteride can't do anything to inhibit it. Is this assessment correct?
In which parts of the body does (some) Testosterone actually get converted into DHT? I presume in the prostate as well as in the liver, but what about the scalp? The sense or nonsense of applying Finasteride topically depends on if the conversion of Testosterone to DHT occurs in the scalp as well and if follicles are mainly effected by DHT that is produced in the scalp and not by regular serum DHT. If it isn't converted in the scalp, the only way the topical Finasteride could do anything to prevent DHT induced allopecia, is if it went systemic, made its way through the bloodstream to the prostate or liver and did its work there to prevent the conversion of Testosterone into DHT, which in essence would render topical Finasteride application just a more inefficient way of consuming Finasteride orally.
In which parts of the body does (some) Testosterone actually get converted into DHT? I presume in the prostate as well as in the liver, but what about the scalp? The sense or nonsense of applying Finasteride topically depends on if the conversion of Testosterone to DHT occurs in the scalp as well and if follicles are mainly effected by DHT that is produced in the scalp and not by regular serum DHT. If it isn't converted in the scalp, the only way the topical Finasteride could do anything to prevent DHT induced allopecia, is if it went systemic, made its way through the bloodstream to the prostate or liver and did its work there to prevent the conversion of Testosterone into DHT, which in essence would render topical Finasteride application just a more inefficient way of consuming Finasteride orally.
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