- Reaction score
- 122
anecdotal reports have emerged recently of people using topical finasteride instead of oral in order to reduce their risk of sexual side effects. as is common in the field of hair loss resesrch, scientists seem to be rather incompentent to come to a fundamental consistent conclusion on this matter.
so the end result is, that some studies support the idea of topical finasteride inducing less sides, others do not. how can this be? is there any other industry where such contradictory results have been found and nobody even gives a sh*t to get to the bottom of it?
here are some of the studies
this is truly fundamental-> only a 5% reduction in serum dht has occured at the same time clear improvements in hair count and quality have been found.
the dosage for this was 2.5%
and this study suggets the exact opposite how can this even be the case? they made a topical solution that works as good but goes as systemic, congratulations, what a contribution.
mazarella study: very low dose at 0.005% and no systemic impact.
the bottom line is this: with this kind of protocol you do not need to survey the patients whether they have sexual sides or not. you can just measure the dht and if it has not been impacted it is side free. now what i am wondering is why are those values so different?
why is there no common consensus? it makes no sense? like, its not even that the duration was too short because in the first and 3rd study it was 6 months, a time fram in which finasteride would have certainly accumulated in the body? so what is it? the vehicle? there must be some biological explanation for it
so the end result is, that some studies support the idea of topical finasteride inducing less sides, others do not. how can this be? is there any other industry where such contradictory results have been found and nobody even gives a sh*t to get to the bottom of it?
here are some of the studies
A randomized, double-blind controlled study of the efficacy and safety of topical solution of 0.25% finasteride admixed with 3% minoxidil vs. 3% minoxidil solution in the treatment of male androgenetic alopecia - PubMed
Treatment with topical solution of 0.25% finasteride admixed with 3% minoxidil was significantly superior to 3% minoxidil solution for promoting hair growth in male androgenetic alopecia, and well tolerated.
pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
this is truly fundamental-> only a 5% reduction in serum dht has occured at the same time clear improvements in hair count and quality have been found.
the dosage for this was 2.5%
and this study suggets the exact opposite how can this even be the case? they made a topical solution that works as good but goes as systemic, congratulations, what a contribution.
mazarella study: very low dose at 0.005% and no systemic impact.
the bottom line is this: with this kind of protocol you do not need to survey the patients whether they have sexual sides or not. you can just measure the dht and if it has not been impacted it is side free. now what i am wondering is why are those values so different?
why is there no common consensus? it makes no sense? like, its not even that the duration was too short because in the first and 3rd study it was 6 months, a time fram in which finasteride would have certainly accumulated in the body? so what is it? the vehicle? there must be some biological explanation for it