You are still confused about how male pattern baldness works.
The balding gene does not get 'activated'. The hair follicle miniaturizes under the cumulative effect of androgen exposure, something only DHT can do with high enough firepower to drive a hair follicle dead over a number of years. This is the simplest way I can explain it.
I didn't want to use word activate to confuse you or other users, more appropriate word used in that context would be regulate. I marked a sentence in your quote which is important to understand; By that you mean there is a threshold. And when that threshold of androgen stimulus on AR is reached, chemical/molecular signals are sent by certain paths and mechanisms. If intensity of that stimulus is less than threshold then nothing would happen, and no signal and instructions would be sent to nucleus. So, only if stimulus is equal or bigger than threshold, chemical signals which regulates balding process/instructions of DP would be sent to nucleus. According to you statement hair follicle can be exposed to certain androgen stimulus for infinitely long time, but as long as that stimulus is less than critical threshold, nothing would happen ?
Can you please give answers on this questions:
Do you think when DHT binds to AR site that "stimulus" is more stronger compared to stimulus when T binds to the same receptor ?
Do you think that DHT (dihydro-testosterone) and T transmit different signals/instructions after binding to the same AR or their only difference is how successfully /effectively they bind to AR site ?
Brian never said testosterone causes male pattern baldness. I believe he was always in support of the pseudohermaphrodite model.
Well, in this thread he gave explanation why is castration more effective in halting male pattern baldness: http://www.hairlosstalk.com/interac...8-DHT-levels?p=1089252&viewfull=1#post1089252
We used to get the occasional post from people who wonder and speculate about why castrated men have what appears to be a TOTAL suppression of male pattern baldness that apparently lasts for life, but for years I've always said that that's probably due to a more complete suppression of androgens than just what you get with finasteride. Castration causes about the same DHT suppression as finasteride, but causes a very striking reduction of testosterone, compared to what you get with finasteride (which actually tends to go UP a little).
The amount that gets converted to DHT by 5-AR depends on the amount of aromatase enzyme, SGBH, free testosterone quantities, and regulation of the androgen/estrogen ratio by the HPTA. It's generally around 5-10% in a normal healthy male. But it can be higher (or lower) otherwise, which is one of the reasons for the early prevalence of male pattern baldness in recent decades.
I definitely agree with your statement conversion process depends on the amount of aromatase enzyme, SGBH, (FreeT, T, DHT) / E ratio and other factors. It's pretty much stochastic process and we must consider all hormones and enzymes which compete with each other in order to bind to AR.
5-AR levels and activity does not really change in general. The changes are mostly signals from specific organs needing 5-AR metabolite molecules to function properly.
I believe 5-ard activity increases as we age, in order to produce stronger androgen effect in target tissues. Benjt has proposed theory of DHT as hormone for local amplification of androgen effects, other endocrine experts share this theory. It would be logical to assume body produces 5ard to generate more potent derivative of testosterone - DHT to compensate lack of total T. And this makes sense.
What exactly you mean by signals from specific organs. Do you think that body produces same quantity of 5ard in scalp, for instance, but AR in DP cells, sebaceous glands become more sensitive in old age ? And because of that they produce more sebum and you can see many old slick bald guys have very oily scalp.
The only scientific study showing AR upregulation was in the case of exogenous sexual steroid administration. Because testosterone increases the number of ARs and their sensitivity, like it increases protein synthesis around the whole body. So even though there is a 10% increase in T from finasteride, it is unlikely to cause a huge anabolic effect either way.
Hope this helps.
Can you please provide the link to that study ?